Category: ENetwork v4.0


Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2) Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
ans:
console interface

3) What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
ans:
greater distances per cable run
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
greater bandwidth potential

4) A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
ans:
UTP

5) What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
ans:
loss of signal strength as distance increases

6) How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
ans:
2046

7) Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
ans:
255.255.255.0

8) A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
ans:
255.255.255.224

9) What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
ans:
rollover

10) Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
ans:
router

11) Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
ans:
192.168.3.54

12) Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
ans:
host B would be successful, host A would fail

13) Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
ans:
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
smart serial

14) Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
ans:
3

15) What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
ans:
direct configuration of the device
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16) Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
ans:
hub

18) Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
ans:
1

19) Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
ans:
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Five networks are shown.

20) To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
ans:
rollover cable

21) Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22) Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
ans:
255.255.255.224

23) Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
ans:
switch

Expect minimum percentage:100%

1) In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
ans:
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical layer
Data-link layer

3) Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
ans:
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4) What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
ans:
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting

5) When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
ans:
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <—

6) What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment

7) What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
ans:
Logical Link Control sublayer

8) Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
ans:
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9.Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
ans:
network layer packet

10) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11) Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
ans:
Collisions can decrease network performance.

12) Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
ans:
network access

13) What is the primary purpose of ARP?
ans:
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14) Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
ans:
No collisions will occur on this link.

15) Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
ans:
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16) Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
copied into RAM during system startup
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long

17) Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
minimizing of collisions
increase in the throughput of communications

18) What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
ans:
copper UTP
optical fiber

19) Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
ans:
BA

20) After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
ans:
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first

21) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.

Expect minimum percentage: 94.3%

1) What are the five elements that make up the fiber-optic cable?
ans:
core, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket

2) In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)
ans:
1 and 2
3 and 6

3) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

4) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

5) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

6) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

7) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

8) Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

9) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

10) What encoding scheme does 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet use?
ans:
4B/5B

11) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

12) In which of the following situations would a crossover cable be used? (Choose two.)
ans:
router to PC
switch to hub

13) Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

14) What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
ans:
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

16) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

17) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

18) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

19) What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
ans:
goodput
throughput
bandwidth

20) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

21) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

22) Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
ans:

23) With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
ans:
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

24) What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
ans:
the twisting of the wires in the cable

25) XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
ans:
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP

26) In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
ans:
fiber

27) What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
ans:
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media

28) Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
ans:
backbone cable

29) What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
ans:
more host mobility

30) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

Expect minimum percentage: 97.7%

1) Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology?
ans:
802.11

2) What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
ans:
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

3) Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
ans:
nondeterministic
collision environment
first-come, first-served approach

4) Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three)
ans:
non-deterministic
less overhead
collisions exist

5) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

6) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

7) Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link layer?
ans:
MAC, LLC

8) Which features describe the concept of Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection? (Choose two.)
ans:
non-deterministic
uses first-come, first-served approach

9)Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?
ans:
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

10) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

11) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They are considered physical addresses.

12) A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawin
ans:
physical topology

13) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

14) Which three session options does PPP offer? (Choose three.)
ans:
multilink
compression
authentication

15) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

16) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
ans:
source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP – PC

18) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

19) What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
ans:
support frame error detection

20) What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
ans:
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

21) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

22) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

23) What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
ans:
The media access control protocol can be very simple.

24) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
ans:
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

25) What is a function of the data link layer?
ans:
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

26) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

27) What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
ans:
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

28) Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
ans:
MAC

29) What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

30) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

31) 19.Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
ans:
4

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
ans:
32

2) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
ans:
255.255.255.192

3) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?
ans:
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33

4) Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
ans:
/27

5) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
ans:
NAT is required for the host A network.

6) What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
ans:
255.255.255.0

7) Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
ans:
This is a network address.

8) What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
ans:
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
varies in length
is used to forward packets

9) What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
ans:
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000

10) A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
ans:
172.16.192.160

11) Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
ans:
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.

12) What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router will discard the packet.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.

13) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192

14) Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
ans:
larger address space
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption

15) Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
ans:
binary ANDing

16) What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
ans:
expanded addressing capabilities

17) Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90

18) Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

19) Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.207 /27

20) What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
ans:
a network

21) Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
ans:
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

22) Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
servers
network printers
routers

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
ans:
destination network address

2) What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
ans:
source and destination IP address

3) In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
ans:
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

4)
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
ans:
time-to-live

5) Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
ans:
network portion

6) Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
ans:
192.133.219.1

7) If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
ans:
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

8) What is the purpose of a default gateway?
ans:
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9) What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
ans:
static

10) When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11) What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
ans:
purpose
geographic location
ownership

12) What is a component of a routing table entry?
ans:
the next-hop address

13) Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
router
firewall

14) What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
ans:
Performance degradation
security issues
host identification

15) Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
ans:
4

16) Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
ans:
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
ans:
10.10.10.6

18) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
ans:
Replace S2 with a router.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.

19) Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20) What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
consume bandwidth to exchange route information

21) What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
ans:
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

Expect minimum percentage: 92.7%

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
ans:
This contains a Telnet request.
This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
ans:
0 to 1023

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
ans:
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
ans:
transport

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
ans:
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
ans:
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
ans:
session establishment

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
ans:
A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
ans:
source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
ans:
low overhead
connectionless

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
ans:
window size

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
ans:
UDP

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
ans:
source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
ans:
flow control
session establishment
numbering and sequencing

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
ans:
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
ans:
minimal delays in data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
ans:
80

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
ans:
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

Expect minimum percentage: 83%

1)Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical
Data Link

2)What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
ans:
supports error detection

3)During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
ans:
physical address is added.

4)What device is considered an intermediary device?
ans:
switch

5)Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
ans:
network

6)Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
determine pathways for data
retime and retransmit data signals
manage data flows

7)What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
ans:
the path to use to reach the destination host

8)What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
ans:
presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

9)Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Network B — WAN
Network C — LAN
Network A — LAN

10)What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages

11)Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
ans:
multiplexing

12)What is a PDU?
ans:
a layer specific encapsulation

13)Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”
ans:
an end device

14)Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
ans:
E, F, H, I, J

15)Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
ans:
intermediary

16)Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
ans:
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.

17)Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
ans:
LAN

18)What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
ans:
division of segments into packets

19)Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
ans:
originate data flow

20)What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
ans:
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21)Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
ans:
define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
require layer dependent encapsulations

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