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Expect minimum percentage: 90.2%

1. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
packet switching
path selection

2. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
ans:
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0

4. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
ans:
172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
ans:
Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
ans:
split horizon

8. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
ans:
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
ans:
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
ans:
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

11. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
ans:
The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

12. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
ans:
limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

13. Refer to the exhibit. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
ans:
B, D

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
ans:
The packet will be dropped.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
ans:
Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

16. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
ans:
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
ans:
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
ans:
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
ans:
Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

20. What are two switching functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router encapsulates the packet in the appropriate data link frame type for the outgoing data link.
The router determines the exit interface after data encapsulation.

21. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
ans:
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

22. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
ans:
The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.

23. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
ans:
NVRAM – stores the configuration file
POST – runs diagnostics on hardware modules

24. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
ans:
Only the enable password is encrypted.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
ans:
Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

26. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
ans:
EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.

27. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
ans:
send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies

28. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

29. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
ans:
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

30. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
ans:
192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.

31. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes are child routes? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0
10.1.2.0

32. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
ans:
route to 10.1.0.0/23

33. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
ans:
It is the metric, which is cost.

34. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
ans:
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

35. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
ans:
S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

36. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
ans:
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.

37. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

38. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

39. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
ans:
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

40. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
ans:
Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.

41. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
ans:
OSPF interval timers mismatch
interface network type mismatch

42. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/13

43. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
ans:
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

44. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ans:
It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC

45. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
ans:
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

46. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
ans:
Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
ans”;
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

48. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

49.
Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
ans:
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.

50. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

51.
What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
ans:
tests Layer 2 connectivity
enabled by default on each interface
provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

52. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
ans:
The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

53. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
ans:
network address
wildcard mask
area ID

54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
ans:
198.18.48.0/21

55. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
ans:
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

56. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
ans:
Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
ans:
DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.

58. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled “?” in the graphic? (Choose three.)
ans:
DCE
CSU/DSU
modem

59. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
ans:
2

Expect minimum percentage: 94.8%

1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
ans:
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
ans:
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
ans:
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
ans:
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.

Which path will be used to transmit the data packets from PC1 to PC2?
ans:
The packets will travel via R2-R1.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?
ans:
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.

7. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
ans:
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

8. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
ans:
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
ans:
Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.

What is the reason for the ping failure?
ans:
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)
ans:
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.

Which ping will fail?
ans:
from R1 to 192.168.3.1

14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
ans:
The default route is configured incorrectly.

15. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
ans:
NVRAM – stores the configuration file
POST – runs diagnostics on hardware modules

16. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
ans:
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

19. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

20. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?
ans:
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.

21. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?
ans:
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

22. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
ans:
192.168.1.64/26

23. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
ans:
Configure the routers in the same area.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

24. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?
ans:
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

26. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
ans:
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

27. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
The shortest path first algorithm is used.

28. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

29. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ans:
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

30. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

31. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?
ans:
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

32. What two routing protocols will produce a shortest path first tree? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
ans:
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
ans:
It will forward the packet to R1.

35. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?
ans:
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.

36. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface

37. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
ans:
Cisco789

38. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
ans:
EIGRP

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
ans:
192.168.0.0/22

40. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
ans:
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

41. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
ans:
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

42. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

43. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

44. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
ans:
split horizon

45. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
ans:
5

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
ans:
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

47. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
the path learned via EIGRP

48. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
ans:
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.

49. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?
ans:
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
ans:
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.

51. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
ans:
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

52. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
ans:
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.

53. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?
ans:
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.

54. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
ans:
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

55. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

56. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. What are two static routes that can be configured on R1, either of which would enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2

57. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
ans:
Router4

58. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
ans:
A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.

59. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
ans:
a DTE device
a V.35 cable

Expect minimum percentage: 82%

1) Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
ans:
10.10.1.3:25

2) Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
ans:
router B, router E, router F, host Y

3) Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
ans:
transport layer

4) A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ans:
NVRAM

6) Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
ans:
The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.

7) Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
ans:
49152 to 65535

8) Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
ans:
192.168.1.1

9) What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
ans:
destination host logical address

10) Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.0.0.1
172.16.0.1
192.168.0.1

11) What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.

12) To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login

What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
ans:
Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.

13) Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
ans:
NVRAM

14) Which OSI layer manages data segments?
ans:
transport layer

15) Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
ans:
router

16) Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
ans:
rollover cable

17) Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
ans:
This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
The network can have 14 hosts.
The assigned address is a private address.

18) Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)
ans:
segment 1
segment 4
segment 5

19) Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
ans:
Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

20) Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
ans:
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

21) Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
ans:
It will drop the packet.

22) Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What does abc.xyz.local in the output represent? (Choose two.)
ans:
the primary domain name server for the host
the IP address of the website resolver1.abc.local

23)
How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
ans:
It uses multiple ports.

24) Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)
ans:
The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.

25) A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
ans:
enable

26) Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
ans:
192.168.9.64/28
192.168.9.96/28
192.168.9.64/26

27) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing http://www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)
ans:
The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.

28) Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)
ans:
1000 BASE-TX
1000 BASE-SX

29) Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
ans:
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

30) Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
ans:
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81

31) Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly. The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown. However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
ans:
Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.

32) Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Four collision domains are present.
Two broadcast domains are present.

33) Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
ans:
router

34) Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
ans:
255.255.248.0

35) While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
ans:
Router(config)#

36) An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
ans:
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0

37) Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
ans:
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

38) Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)
ans:
172.16.11.88
172.16.11.70
172.16.11.67

39) What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
ans:
Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.

40) Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5, and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24. What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
ans:
0060.7320.B826

41) Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
ans:
It supports data communications between networks.
It prevents broadcasts.
It uniquely identifies each host.

42) Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
ans:
10.1.192.1

43) Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?
ans:
5

44) Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
ans:
It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.

45) Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
ans:
The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.

46) Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The gateway addresses are network addresses.

47) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
ans:
The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

48) Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
ans:
ring

49) Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
ans:192.168.0.0/21

Expect minimum percentage: 97.4%

1. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
ans:
Dijkstra

2. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
ans:
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
ans:
SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
ans:
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
ans:
cost of the link

6. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
ans:
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

7. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
all routers in the area have link state databases
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
ans:
updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
ans:
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
Each router independently determines the route to each network.
After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
ans:
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

12. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
ans:
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
ans:
link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
ans:
when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
ans:
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
ans:
OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
ans:
floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
ans:
B and C

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
ans:
topology table

2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
ans:
they have different autonomous-system numbers

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32 network on router A?
ans:
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

4. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
ans:
query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor

5. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
ans:
the route is in a stable state

6. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
ans:
routing
topology

7. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose two.)
ans:
the feasible distance of the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

8. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
ans:
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

9. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
ans:
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

10. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

12. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
ans:
the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

13. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
ans:
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
ans:
A,B,E

15. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
ans:
delay
bandwidth

16. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
ans:
autonomous system

17. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
ans:
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.

18. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
ans:
identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise

19. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
ans:
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

20. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
ans:
170

21. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
ans:
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ans:
ip classless

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
ans:
7

3. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:

R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1

What type of route is this?
ans:
a level 1 ultimate network route

4. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
ans:
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route

5. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
ans:
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

6. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
ans:
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
ans:
do nothing, ip classless is on by default

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
ans:
use the default route

9. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
ans:
RIPv2

10. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
ans:
255.255.255.0

11. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance

12. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
ans:
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
ans:
forward out interface Serial0/0/1

14. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
ans:
send packet out Serial 0/0/1

15. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
ans:
There is at least one parent and one child route

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
ans:
All of the routes listed are network routes.

18. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
ans:
The command ip classless is enabled on the router.

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
ans:
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

2. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
ans:
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

3. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
ans:
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
ans:
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
Why does the router respond with an error?
ans:
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

6. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
ans:
15 hops

7. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
ans:
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
ans:
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
ans:
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

10. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
ans:
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

11. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
ans:
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

12. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
ans:
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

13. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
ans:
Configure RIPv2 on routers.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
ans:
Router2(config-router)# version 2

15. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
ans:
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

18. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
ans:
subnet mask

19. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
ans:
255.255.255.252

2. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
192.1.1.224/28

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
ans:
192.168.0.0/21

4. What is a supernet?
ans:
a summarization of serveral IP classful networks into one IP address range

5. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
ans:
84

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
ans:
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
ans:
CIDR

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2….successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network….successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2….successful
5. pings from R2 to host B….successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
ans:
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

9. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
ans:
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
ans:
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

11. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
32-bit address
subnet mask

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
/27

13. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
ans:
29

14. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
ans:
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

15. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
ans:
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

16. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
ans:
192.168.2.130/25

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
ans:
192.168.4.15/29

18. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied by router B when it receives a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0?
ans:
24

19. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
ans:
the shortage of IP addresses

20. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
ans:
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

Expect minimum percentage: 94.9%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?
ans:
155 seconds

2. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
ans:
10.0.0.0/8

3. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
ans:
only the gateway router

5. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
ans:
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers B and D also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
ans:
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

7. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
ans:
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

8. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
ans:
3

9. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
ans:
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

10. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
ans:
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
ans:
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

13. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
ans:
debug ip rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
ans:
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
ans:
30

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route command?
ans:
There are two equal cost paths to network 172.16.100.128.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route command?
ans:
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

18. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
ans:
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

19. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
ans:
RouterB(config)# no router rip

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
ans:
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

2. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
ans:
16

3. What is a routing loop?
ans:
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
ans:
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
ans:
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries

6. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
ans:
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

7. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
ans:
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

8. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
ans:
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
ans:
3

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
ans:
route poisoning

11. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
ans:
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

12. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

13. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
ans:
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

14. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
ans:
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

15. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
ans:
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

16. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

17. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

18. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
ans:
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2

19. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
ans:
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

20. Which event will cause a triggered update?
ans:
a route is installed in the routing table